Here's why:
* Phi represents a sound not found in the Phoenician alphabet. The Phoenician alphabet primarily used consonants, with the sound represented by phi (a voiceless labiodental fricative) not being a core part of their sound system.
* The Phoenician alphabet doesn't have a symbol for that specific sound. The closest sound in Phoenician would be represented by the letter "Pe" (𐤐) , which typically made a /p/ sound, not a /f/ sound.
So, while there's no exact equivalent, the Phoenician letter "Pe" could be considered the closest approximation, as it represents a similar sound.